I should know this
OK, so yeah, I'm a medievalist. And I know when it was agreed that Easter would be celebrated (in the west, at least) on the first Sunday after the first full moon after the vernal equinox. But what I don't think I've ever known is ... why doesn't Easter just coincide with Passover? I mean, if the Last Supper was really a Passover Seder, then that makes sense. If it wasn't, but theologians wanted to enforce the idea of connection to Passover and Jesus as the Lamb, then it still makes sense. I mean, is it just one of those things where it's important to pick out the Messianic prophecies in the OT, but reject the 'Jewishness' of the same?
Yes, I am teaching about Whitby this week, and also, I am supposed to be reading now. But mostly, I just never really thought about this before, and am too damned lazy to look it up.